Numerical Analysis Questions & Answers | |
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Better. 0.5 point extra bonus. If you would have typeset this with proper LATEX equation numbers you would gotten more.
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This is great. I'll give you 3 points bonus. It could be made a bit shorter thus, and you shouldn't separate the proof into sections: this makes it harder to read. Also, I was looking for a simpler proof using Taylor series. If someone else can do it, another 3 bonus points are up for grabs.
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This is fine, I'll give you 2 points bonus. I would have given 3 if you would have typeset correctly your equations with proper equation numbers as specified in the LATEX mini HOWTO in the Skylounge. But, this proof is still not what I was looking for.. There's a much easier way to prove it using Taylor series (without power series). Three bonus points are still up for grabs.
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This is what I was looking for. I'll give you 2.5 points bonus. The only problem here is that you don't define $f(x)$ prior to doing the expansion with the Taylor series.
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Well, in this case, it's clear what the notation means. It doesn't matter if it's a superscript or subscript..
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I don't understand this part: $$ k^{\sum_{m=0}^{n-1} p^{m-1}}=k^{1+\sum_{m=0}^{n-1} p^{m-1}} $$ This doesn't make sense to me. Is this a typo or a misunderstanding? Please fix this and retype your proof below.
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Hm, but if that is true, then I don't understand how you obtain the following on the denominator on the LHS: $$ \frac{k^{2^n}*\epsilon_{0}^{2^n}}{k*k^{p^n-1}*\epsilon_{0}^{p^n}}=\frac{k^{2^n}*\epsilon_{0}^{2^n}}{k^{p^n}*\epsilon_{0}^{p^n}} $$ Please fix this and rewrite your proof better below. And please never use the newline command in your posts (two blackslashes). This is not necessary and is a bad habit.
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Obtaining convergence to 4 significant numbers means that iterating more won't change the first 4 significant numbers. Only one question per post please. 1 point bonus.
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There is still the same problem with your proof. You claim that $$ \frac{\epsilon_{(n)(Newton)}}{\epsilon_{(n)(secant)}}=\frac{k^{2^{n}-1} \epsilon_{0}^{2n}}{k^{\sum_{m=0}^{n-1} p^{m-1}} \epsilon_{0}^{p^{n}}}=\frac{\frac{k^{2^n} \epsilon_{0}^{2n}}{k}}{k^{\sum_{m=0}^{n-1} p^{m-1}} \epsilon_{0}^{p^n}}=\frac{k^{2^n} \epsilon_{0}^{2n}}{k^1 k^{\sum_{m=0}^{n-1} p^{m-1}} \epsilon_{0}^{p^n}} =\frac{k^{2^n} \epsilon_{0}^{2n}}{k^{1+\sum_{m=0}^{n-1} p^{m-1}} \epsilon_{0}^{p^n}} $$ and that $$ k^{\sum_{m=0}^{n-1} p^{m-1}} \epsilon_{0}^{p^n}=k^{1+p^{-1}+p^0+p^1+...+p^{n-2}} \epsilon_{0}^{p^n}=k^{1+p^n-1} \epsilon_{0}^{p^n}=k^{p^n} \epsilon_{0}^{p^n} $$ But if you substitute the latter in the former, you will not get $$ \frac{\epsilon_{(n)(Newton)}}{\epsilon_{(n)(secant)}}=\frac{k^{2n} \epsilon_{0}^{2n}}{k^{p^n} \epsilon_{0}^{p^n}}= \frac{{(k \epsilon_{0})}^{2^n}}{{(k \epsilon_{0})}^{p^n}}={(k \epsilon_{0})}^{2^n-p^n} $$ Thus your proof is wrong. I gave you 3 chances already, and you didn't succeed. I can not give you one more chance. 1 point bonus for the effort. Let others now try.
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I don't understand your question. Please formulate this better.
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I'm not sure what you mean. The number of iterations depends on the initial guess. If the initial guess is the root, then the number of iterations is 1. I'll give you 0.5 point for the effort.
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I see what you mean. True, the number of iterations depends not only on the initial guess, but also on the values given to the previous guesses for the root (i.e. $x_{-1}$ and $x_{-2}$). This may affect slightly the number of iterations needed to reach convergence. But for fastest convergence generally choose values for $x_{-1}$ and $x_{-2}$ that are very close to $x_0$. But even if you choose values for $x_{-1}$ and $x_{-2}$ that are not very close to $x_0$, I won't take away points. When correcting the exams, I will look at the logic, not the answers only. Good question: 1.0 bonus point more. |
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$\pi$ |