Computational Aerodynamics Questions & Answers  
Question by Student 201227106
Professor, I installed VMware and tried to run LINUX virtual machine. but it has an error with the message. I think my laptop has problem with hardware. Please recomment with my problem.
1.PNG  ./download/file.php?id=3287&sid=158d51e6c982a72bcc726451f1461500  ./download/file.php?id=3287&t=1&sid=158d51e6c982a72bcc726451f1461500
I think this is because VMware on your laptop can not run a 64 bit Linux OS for some reason. So, download the 32 bit iso image of Ubuntu Mate 16.04.2 and install it (after clicking on Ubuntu MATE 16.04.2 LTS, click on 32 bit). Let me know if this fixed the problem.
Question by Student 201227106
Thank you, professor. I could install that program with your help.
I'm glad to hear that. Because your post may help others, I'll give you 2 points bonus boost.
Question by Student 201127151
Professor, I just would like to inform you that my student ID isn't listed in Introduction to CFD Scores. So could you check it again, please?
I corrected it.
Question by Student 201238707
Professor, I learnt in other class that there are two methods to solve the fluid problem. I wonder why we dealt with just differential form of fluid motion. Is it because Equation in integral form is not useful to CFD?
Both the integral form and the differential form can be used in CFD. But we can derive the integral form by integrating the differential form over a volume.. We'll get to this at one point. Interesting question: I'll give 2 points bonus boost.
Question by Student 201427564
Dear Professor, I can't understand why these two equations $ \frac { \partial ( {\frac {1} {2}} {{v}_{x}^2} ) } { \partial t} = {{v}_{x}} {\frac {\partial {v}_{x}} {\partial t}}$ , $ \frac { \partial ( {\frac {1} {2}} {{v}_{x}}^2 ) } { \partial y} = {{v}_{x}} {\frac {\partial {v}_{x}} {\partial y}} $ are reasonable. Because $ {v}_{x} $ is velocity of x-direction, but t and y are not x.
The following is always correct: $$ \frac { \partial ( {\frac {1} {2}} {\phi^2} ) } { \partial \xi} = {\phi} {\frac {\partial \phi} {\partial \xi}} $$ where $\phi$ is any property and $\xi$ can be $x$, $y$, $t$, or any coordinate. It doesn't matter if $\phi$ is $v_x$ or $t$, the above is a mathematical transformation, not a physical one. Not a bad question, I'll give you 1.5 points bonus.
Question by Student 201527110
Professor, I don't understand how $\Gamma,(\frac{\partial \tau}{\partial t})$ can be chosen. You set $\Gamma=1$ because $\Gamma$ is constant when we trying to get $\Phi_1=0$ but, actually I don't understand how it really can be like this.
This is a good question. First note that $\Gamma$ must be chosen such that it respects the dependencies we specified during the derivation. By definition, $$ \Gamma\equiv\frac{\partial \tau}{\partial t} $$ Thus, because $\tau=\tau(t)$, $\Gamma$ can not depend on $x$ or $y$. $\Gamma$ could depend on $t$ thus. We here choose it to be simply $\Gamma=1$ because that is the simplest expression that satisfies the above dependency.. I'll give you 2 points bonus boost.
1,  2 ,  3  ...  14    Next  •  PDF 1✕1 2✕1 2✕2  •  New Question